https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ngtuCJNk0wo (this was the first one I saw)
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2e4XPFsVlz0 (skip to 7:37, the intro is bogus)
This one really blew my mind because I remember this song long ago ending differently:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IsLkP-dq93A (a bit repetitive but you get the idea)
The most alarming thing to me is the changing of scripture. I just watched a debunking video (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-1i_iBxo6nQ ) claiming, what some of my friends claim, that the effect is a memory trick, a mirage if you will of propaganda making us think things have changed when they haven’t.
One reason I am fairly convinced of some of the biblical changes is because I was raised on the KJV version of the bible in the Lutheran church which is a liturgical church. We recited certain verses all the time, many of which are imbedded in things like the Nicene Creed. We would pray the “Lord’s Prayer” every Sunday for years – I have it down pat.
The difficulty with the Mandela Effect is that its evidence is entirely based on memory which is very hard to prove is correct. Our mind does play tricks on us and several witnesses of the same event will often contradict each other. I think the proof comes in the statistical fact that thousands of people remember it differently. Now for things that are commercial like Star Wars, it’s easy for me to believe that maybe an ad campaign got something wrong and duplicated it in the minds of millions of people creating a false memory, but in the Star Wars case there are many incidental proofs that Darth Vadar did say “Luke” and not “No”, even from the lips of James Earl Jones (see https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2e4XPFsVlz0 at time 10:04 for the evidence).
So I wanted to go into some verses in some depth to show how I remember them and how they are now and to see if I can convince some of the gain-sayers that yes, the KJV bible HAS CHANGED.
Note that the King James Version of the Bible is fairly famous for laying out the language consistently. It was used as the primary textbook for English in America up until the mid 20th century. It is amazingly consistent in its use of the language and created a strong understanding of it in the early American colonies. It is well known for is first-use of words that help define the term and then consistently uses the same word in following verses.
Verse 1 : Genesis 1:1
As I recall, this used to say “Heavens” and not “Heaven” as the KJV now shows. Note here https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H8064&t=KJV that the Hebrew word is Shamayim. “im” is a common Hebrew ending that means plural. I have only studied Hebrew for a few months and even I know that!
"Heaven" is found in the KJV, and WEB translations. (source BlueLetterBible.org)
"Heavens" is found in the NKJV, NLT, NIV, ESV, HCSB, NASB, NET, RSV, ASV, YLT, DBY, HNV
I always remember this as plural and we know that is the case because Paul refers to the third heaven in 2 Corinthinians 12:2. I find it hard to believe that the very first verse in the bible would be incorrectly stated in the KJV. Interestingly the WEB (Webster’s Bible) also has it singular- so it could be an artifact of the English language at the time that Heaven meant plural – but that would be strange because the WEB uses "heavens" elsewhere as does the KJV in Genesis 2:1 and many other places.
Verse 2: The Lords Prayer (Matthew 6:9 & Luke 11:2)
Matthew 6:12 in KJV uses debts/debtors while Luke 11:4 reads sins/indebted (which I NEVER remember it that way!). My memory and our constant recitation of the Lord’s Prayer in church for years was always “forgive us our trespasses as we forgive those who trespass against us”. That form is now nowhere in the KJV! Go ahead, look for the word trespasses on BlueLetterBible.org – it can be found in numerous places but NOT in the Lords Prayer. Trespasses is a hard word to say for a little kid in church. I remember how many would trip over this passage – too many syllables! This sticks in my head like glue.
Verse 2: Matthew 9:17
Here the KJV and WEB has the term bottles while NKJV, NLT, NIV, ESV, HCSB, NASB, NET, RSV, ASV, YLT(skins), DBY(skins), and HNV (from BlueLetterBible.org) have wineskins. I do not remember bottles as a child and the previous verse speaks of cloth tearing. Was the KJV always this way? (It is interesting how the WEB follows suit just like in Genesis 1:1).
Verse 4: the Nicene Creed
I had to say this every Sunday for many years in the Lutheran church I attended. I have probably recited it thousands of times. Here is how I recall it:
I believe in one God, the Father Almighty, maker of heaven and the earth, and of all things, visible and invisible. I believe in one Lord, Jesus Christ, God of God, Light of Light, very God of very God, begotten, not made, being of one substance with the Father, through whom all things were made. He came down from heaven by the Holy Ghost, born of the Virgin Mary, he became a man, suffered under Pontius Pilate, was crucified, died and was buried. On the third day He rose again from the dead according to the scriptures; he ascended into heaven and sits at the right hand of God. He will come again to judge the quick and the dead, and of His kingdom there shall be no end.
Now compare that to this: http://creeds.net/ancient/nicene.htm
While researching this, I also see the Apostles Creed is not how I remember it. The more verses I look at in KJV the more it seems different than how I remember! This is really freaky!!!
This video is Chris Curtis’ summary of the scriptural reasons for why this is happening:
I tend to agree.
P,S. and yet another good summary of the Mandela Effect: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XVqMjSl9PNA